Helen Hollick's Website : Weekend Wandering: Why did Harold of Wessex go to Normandy?

a few thoughts by Helen Hollick

Recycled from an original post of 2010

In 1063/4 (possibly 1065 - we don't know the exact date, but I think pre-1065) Earl Harold of Wessex took ship from his family manor, Bosham, on the south coast of England and ended up in Normandy.

The recent awful TV drama (99% totally inaccurate and utter nonsense) King and Conqueror implied that Harold Godwineson and Duke William were best mates. They weren't. They didn't know each other personally until Harold's trip abroad. That did happen - it is clearly shown in the Bayeux Tapestry - what we don't know, is why Harold went to Normandy.

Logically, it doesn't take much working out...

Harold and some of his men had planned the voyage, first praying (presumably for a safe journey) at the family church in Bosham, (say it as 'Bozzum') then after a jolly feast, loading a ship with various gifts...

Harold and his brother entering the church
(public domain)

The second scene clearly shows the men wading through shallow water to the boat - this is a very accurate depiction of Bosham as the tide comes in quickly and high, most of the sea-front houses, even today, have exactly the same sort of steps:

my friend James and some Bosham steps

For some reason Harold ended up on the other side of the Channel as a prisoner of Guy de Ponthieu. Harold and his men were experienced sailors, but did they meet a storm, get blown off course? Whatever happened, Duke William came to his rescue and apologised profusely to Harold for the misunderstanding. This was political diplomacy, Harold was King Edward's leading Earl - his second in command, and to be treated poorly would have been extremely embarrassing for William. Nor, at this stage, would there have been any reason between these two men for hostilities. In fact, the opposite, Duke William would have been keenly interested in ensuring political 'friendship'. (Much the same is happening today with various political leaders and Donald Trump.)

Harold then spent several months in Normandy, even going on campaign with William. In my novel, I write that William offers one of his daughters in marriage to Harold. There is no evidence for this - but it is a logical step. William would be wanting a sure, cemented alliance with England. Harold only had a 'common-law' wife (Edyth Swanneck) no official 'chuch' wife. A marriage would have made total sense.

But why was Harold there in the first place?

The answer is obvious. Since the early 1050s William had held two of Harold's family as hostage after a rather unpleasant incident between th Godwine family and some Normans at Dover. The hostages were Harold's youngest brother, Waltheof and his nephew, Hakon. Doesn't it seem likely that after these passed years, Harold was attenmpting to secure their release?

But after going on campaign, being (apparently) made welcome as a potential friend and maybe son-in-law), Harold was forced - tricked - into swearing an oath of fealty. To swear that he would support William's claim to the English throne. A claim William made through his relationship to Edward - Emma,Edward'smother wads William's Great-Aunt, plus William claimed that Edward had promised him the throne back in 1052 (jst before the Dover incident.)

If Edward had done that it would have been overturned by English law, as the next Kinbg was elected by the Witan (the Council) the offer of inheritance was not Edward's to make.

It had become obvious in Normandy, that Harold's position as 'guest' had changed to that of 'prisoner'.

Swear, or lose your life. Swear or never see your freedom again.

And the clincher for Harold going to Normandy?

He came back to England with his nephew, Hakon (who subsequently died at Hastings) but Walthof never saw his freedom again.

Read a far more accurate version of the events that led to 1066 in my novel - and don't bother with the rubbish TV drama